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Old 11-11-2013, 03:43 PM
rstrats rstrats is offline
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Matthew 12:40

Whenever the three days and three nights of Matthew 12:40 is brought up in a “discussion” with 6th day crucifixion folks, they frequently argue that it is a common Jewish idiom for counting any part of a day as a whole day. I wonder if anyone knows of any writing that shows that a phrase stating a specific number of days and/or a specific number of nights was ever used in the first century or before when it absolutely couldn't have included at least a part of each one of the specific number of days and at least a part of each one of the specific number of nights?
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Old 12-22-2014, 04:10 AM
sashasuman sashasuman is offline
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If one really thinks about it, having that good and bad knowledge is no guarantee that one will choose or incline towards the good. After all, that’s what the serpent omitted in his speech, before Eve ate off the tree of knowledge of good and bad. The serpent said, “You are not going to die, but Yahweh knows that as soon as you eat of it, your eyes will be opened and you will be like divine beings, who know good and bad.”
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Old 12-22-2014, 08:22 AM
rstrats rstrats is offline
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sashasuman,

re: "If one really thinks about it, having that good and bad knowledge is no guarantee that one will choose or incline towards the good."

I'm afraid I don't see what that has to do with the OP. I wonder if you might explain why you think that it does?

Also, are you a 6th day of the week crucifixion advocate?
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Old 04-29-2016, 08:17 AM
rstrats rstrats is offline
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Since it's been awhile, someone new looking in may know of some examples.
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