Shalom All,
I have enjoyed reading all your postings, especially the posting labeled “atonement”. I have a question concerning this very subject. Hopefully someone here can help me with this subject. According to the four verses below, substitution of another man’s sin can not be applied or placed on someone else.
Deuteronomy 24:16 The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers:every man shall be put to death for his own sin.
Ezekiel 18:20 The soul that sinneth, it shall die: the son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear
the iniquity of the son; the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.
Jer 31:30 But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge.
Leviticus 27:29 29'No one who may have been set apart among men shall be ransomed; he shall surely be put to death.
Here is my question:
Why didn’t king David pay for his own sin. It appears to me that David's son bared the brunt of the punishment with his death. According to the Torah a man shall be put to death for his own crimes. Scriptures seem to alluded that King David was punished for murdering Uriah. The punishment also seems to be the death of David's first born by BathSheba. Can someone explain to me the contradiction here? Could it simply be that David's sin's were a curse that passed from one generation to another? Secondly, how do these verses apply to Yeshua being an atonement of another man's sin?
Boomer
I have enjoyed reading all your postings, especially the posting labeled “atonement”. I have a question concerning this very subject. Hopefully someone here can help me with this subject. According to the four verses below, substitution of another man’s sin can not be applied or placed on someone else.
Deuteronomy 24:16 The fathers shall not be put to death for the children, neither shall the children be put to death for the fathers:every man shall be put to death for his own sin.
Ezekiel 18:20 The soul that sinneth, it shall die: the son shall not bear the iniquity of the father, neither shall the father bear
the iniquity of the son; the righteousness of the righteous shall be upon him, and the wickedness of the wicked shall be upon him.
Jer 31:30 But every one shall die for his own iniquity: every man that eateth the sour grape, his teeth shall be set on edge.
Leviticus 27:29 29'No one who may have been set apart among men shall be ransomed; he shall surely be put to death.
Here is my question:
Why didn’t king David pay for his own sin. It appears to me that David's son bared the brunt of the punishment with his death. According to the Torah a man shall be put to death for his own crimes. Scriptures seem to alluded that King David was punished for murdering Uriah. The punishment also seems to be the death of David's first born by BathSheba. Can someone explain to me the contradiction here? Could it simply be that David's sin's were a curse that passed from one generation to another? Secondly, how do these verses apply to Yeshua being an atonement of another man's sin?
Boomer
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