22 I have blotted out, as a thick cloud, thy transgressions, and, as a cloud, thy sins: return unto me; for I have redeemed thee. Isa. 44: 22
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26 That confirmeth the word of his servant, and performeth the counsel of his messengers; that saith to Jerusalem, Thou shalt be inhabited; and to the cities of Judah, Ye shall be built, and I will raise up the decayed places thereof:
27 That saith to the deep, Be dry, and I will dry up thy rivers:
28 That saith of (**Cyrus, He is my shepherd**), and shall perform all my pleasure: even saying to Jerusalem, Thou shalt be built; and to the temple, Thy foundation shall be laid. Isa. 44: 26 - 28
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...We seem to have a proclamation of righteousness in the 44th chapter of Isaiah. We have both the complete remission of sin, as well as a statement of redemption from YHWH. This proclamation of sinlessness, belongs to (All) the seed of Israel, that is (Jacob and Israel, vs 21) This, at least suggests that the messianic text of Isa. 53 may belong in the time of this redemption. This is a very dated bit of text in that it mentions Cyrus by name. At which point does this righteous people loose their righteousness? This theme of a righteous people having been redeemed, is carried on throughout the latter chapters of Isaiah. If Israel is allready a righteous people, haven't they inherited the salvation of their Eloheem? We know that this redemption carries through to the building of the second temple. (vs. 28) Zerubabel's people must also be a righteous people. When YHWH declares his people to be righteous, how long does that declaration last? To think that such a declaration ends with the peoples first sin would make YHWH into a fool. Every ten minutes he would have to declare a new proclamation of vindication. Even the priesthood of Aaron must have some retentiveness in it's method of dealing with sin. In these times of sinlessness, It is to the living that salvation belongs. This is not the salvation of souls, that Isaiah speaks of. It is the salvation of his own people. Did (jesus) acomplish this type of salvation for his people? The New Testement seems to change the formula. In the time of Isaiah, YHWH's people have their righteousness, {they are a holy people} but in the later time {of jesus}, they are robbed of this decree of righteousness by the new faith of christianity. Now if this peoples name is (GD), wouldn't that cast a new light on christianity? We could begin to understand why YHWH wants his people to be holy like him. It would be so, for his name sake. Since christianity does not make YHWH's people (all righteous) like Isa. 53 infers, we can assume something amiss. You see, the righteous servant of Isa. 53 makes a people righteous. As to which people is declared righteous, we read it in verse eight of Isa. 53, and how many of these people are made righteous, is declared in verse six. The author sees (all) his people as righteous, in the same context of my scriptural references, which he likely wrote himself. Isa. 40: 1 - 3 asks a servant of YHWH's to declare an end of warfare and comfort his people. Mat. 3: 3 infers this servant to be (jesus). But (jesus) declares war on this people. Wouldn't doing so {declaring war upon them} make him a false shepherd, more like the shepherd of Zech. 11: 15 - 17?
42 Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto (**thy peace!**) but now they are hid from thine eyes.
43 For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side,
44 And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation.
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...and yet, Isa. 53 goes with a concrete declaration of righteousness for YHWH's people. Even if they don't know who he is. (strongly implied) What about the shepherd of peace, who gains a declaration of righteousness for all his people? Where is his place?
....Michael
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26 That confirmeth the word of his servant, and performeth the counsel of his messengers; that saith to Jerusalem, Thou shalt be inhabited; and to the cities of Judah, Ye shall be built, and I will raise up the decayed places thereof:
27 That saith to the deep, Be dry, and I will dry up thy rivers:
28 That saith of (**Cyrus, He is my shepherd**), and shall perform all my pleasure: even saying to Jerusalem, Thou shalt be built; and to the temple, Thy foundation shall be laid. Isa. 44: 26 - 28
---------------------------------------------------------
...We seem to have a proclamation of righteousness in the 44th chapter of Isaiah. We have both the complete remission of sin, as well as a statement of redemption from YHWH. This proclamation of sinlessness, belongs to (All) the seed of Israel, that is (Jacob and Israel, vs 21) This, at least suggests that the messianic text of Isa. 53 may belong in the time of this redemption. This is a very dated bit of text in that it mentions Cyrus by name. At which point does this righteous people loose their righteousness? This theme of a righteous people having been redeemed, is carried on throughout the latter chapters of Isaiah. If Israel is allready a righteous people, haven't they inherited the salvation of their Eloheem? We know that this redemption carries through to the building of the second temple. (vs. 28) Zerubabel's people must also be a righteous people. When YHWH declares his people to be righteous, how long does that declaration last? To think that such a declaration ends with the peoples first sin would make YHWH into a fool. Every ten minutes he would have to declare a new proclamation of vindication. Even the priesthood of Aaron must have some retentiveness in it's method of dealing with sin. In these times of sinlessness, It is to the living that salvation belongs. This is not the salvation of souls, that Isaiah speaks of. It is the salvation of his own people. Did (jesus) acomplish this type of salvation for his people? The New Testement seems to change the formula. In the time of Isaiah, YHWH's people have their righteousness, {they are a holy people} but in the later time {of jesus}, they are robbed of this decree of righteousness by the new faith of christianity. Now if this peoples name is (GD), wouldn't that cast a new light on christianity? We could begin to understand why YHWH wants his people to be holy like him. It would be so, for his name sake. Since christianity does not make YHWH's people (all righteous) like Isa. 53 infers, we can assume something amiss. You see, the righteous servant of Isa. 53 makes a people righteous. As to which people is declared righteous, we read it in verse eight of Isa. 53, and how many of these people are made righteous, is declared in verse six. The author sees (all) his people as righteous, in the same context of my scriptural references, which he likely wrote himself. Isa. 40: 1 - 3 asks a servant of YHWH's to declare an end of warfare and comfort his people. Mat. 3: 3 infers this servant to be (jesus). But (jesus) declares war on this people. Wouldn't doing so {declaring war upon them} make him a false shepherd, more like the shepherd of Zech. 11: 15 - 17?
42 Saying, If thou hadst known, even thou, at least in this thy day, the things which belong unto (**thy peace!**) but now they are hid from thine eyes.
43 For the days shall come upon thee, that thine enemies shall cast a trench about thee, and compass thee round, and keep thee in on every side,
44 And shall lay thee even with the ground, and thy children within thee; and they shall not leave in thee one stone upon another; because thou knewest not the time of thy visitation.
---------------------------------------------------------
...and yet, Isa. 53 goes with a concrete declaration of righteousness for YHWH's people. Even if they don't know who he is. (strongly implied) What about the shepherd of peace, who gains a declaration of righteousness for all his people? Where is his place?
....Michael
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